Bộ 20 Đề thi Tiếng Anh lớp 10 Giữa học kì 1 năm 2023 tải nhiều nhất
Bộ 20 Đề thi Tiếng Anh lớp 10 Giữa học kì 1 năm 2023 tải nhiều nhất
Haylamdo biên soạn và sưu tầm Bộ 20 Đề thi Tiếng Anh lớp 10 Giữa học kì 1 năm 2023 tải nhiều nhất được tổng hợp chọn lọc từ đề thi môn Tiếng Anh 10 của các trường trên cả nước sẽ giúp học sinh có kế hoạch ôn luyện từ đó đạt điểm cao trong các bài thi Tiếng Anh lớp 10.
Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....
Đề thi Giữa Học kì 1
Năm học 2023
Bài thi môn: Tiếng Anh lớp 10
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút
(không kể thời gian phát đề)
(Đề số 1)
I. Circle the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the other words. (1 point)
1. A. background 2. A. sand 3. A. peasant 4. A. marvellous |
B. atomic B. man B. reason B. target |
C. calculation C. pass C. teapot C. warm |
D. marry D. bad D. leader D. guitar |
II. Put the verbs in brackets into the correct form. (2 points)
1. He failed (persuade)……………………his boss to accept his project.
2. Trees (grow)..............................more quickly in summer than in winter.
3. You (ever/ see)……………….……….this film before?
4. Mary (not/ have)………………. much money. She can’t afford (go)…………..……..out very often.
5. I (already/ hear)……………………. about the accident when he (tell)…………..……. me about it.
6. The police didn’t allow the tourists (camp) ………..…………..in this wood for security reasons.
III. Supply the correct form of the word in bold. (1point)
1. The boys are in……………………for the competition next week. TRAIN
2. Through hard work and………………., all obstacles can be overcome. DETERMINE
3. My daughter has one of the biggest stamp….......................in Britain. COLLECT
4. After the……………….…death of her husband, Marie Curie took up his position at the Sorbonne. TRAGEDY
IV. Read the passage and make up the questions and then answer them. (3 points)
Albert Einstein was born on 14 March 1879 in Germany. Around 1886, he began his school in Munich. As well as his violin lessons, which he had from age six to thirteen, he also had religious education at home where he was taught Judaism. Two years later he entered the Luitpold Gymnasium and after this his religious education was given at school. He began to study mathematics, in particular the calculus, in 1891. In 1894 his family moved to Milan but he remained in Munich.
In 1895 Einstein failed an examination that would have allowed him to study for a diploma as an electrical engineer in Zurich. Indeed, he succeeded with his plan graduating in 1900 as a teacher of mathematics and physics. In 1905 he proposed the special theory of Relativity. Einstein received the Nobel Prize in 1921. He died on 18th April 1955 in Princeton.
1. How old /Albert Einstein /when /begin/ his school?
................................................................................................................................................
2. When/ he/ begin /study / mathematics?
................................................................................................................................................
3. Einstein/ use/ work/ electrical engineer/ Zurich?
................................................................................................................................................
VI. Rewrite each sentence, beginning as shown, so that the meaning stays the same. (2 points)
1. I haven’t gone to the theatre for a long time.
The last time………………………………………………………………………………………….
2. Sue fell asleep on the sofa. Then she left the house.
Before………………………………………………………………………………………
3. Her mother spent two hours making a new dress.
It took….………………………………………………………………………….
4. The driver of the car said it was true that he didn’t have a license.
The driver of the car admitted ……………………………………………………
VII. Use the words or phrases to write complete sentences. (1 point)
1. I/ often/ go/ school/ early/ avoid/ drive/ in/ rush hour.
→ ………………………………………………………………………
2. My daughter/ interested/ work / a/ tourist guide/ because/ she/ enjoys/ work/ people.
→ ………………………………………………………………………..
Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....
Đề thi Giữa Học kì 1
Năm học 2023
Bài thi môn: Tiếng Anh lớp 10
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút
(không kể thời gian phát đề)
(Đề số 2)
PART I: CHOOSE THE BEST ANSWER A,B,C OR D: (3ms)
Choose the word which has the underlined part pronounced differently from the rest:
1. A. hand B. bank C. sand D. band
2. A. double B. govern C. punish D. control
3. A. handicapped B. visited C. decided D. wanted
4. Many people go to pagodas to...............for good luck.
A. ask B. think C. pray D. celebrate
5. He apologized............not being able to complete the poem.
A. for B. in C. on D. of
6. My teachers always encourage .................hard at school.
A. us to work B. that we work C. to work D. working
7. The police prevented us ................getting into the park.
A. on B. out of C. off D. from
8. .......................... two hours over lunch, they left the restaurant.
A. Spending B. Spent C. After spend D. Having spent
9. Some scientists say that there are enough resources to ................8 billion people.
A. raise B. provide C. distribute D. support
10. Before I started the car, all of the passengers _________________ their seat belts.
A. have buckled B. had buckled C. will buckle D. was buckling
11. How many__________ are there in the competition?
A. participative B. participants C. participates D. participations
12. I am so __________ that I cannot say anything, but keep silent.
A. nervously B. nerve C. nervous D. nervousness
13. ___________ is a holiday in Vietnam celebrated on September 2nd every year.
A. Teachers' Day B. Mother's Day C. Thanksgiving D. Independence Day
14. There was __________ shortage of food and safe water after the flood.
A. Ø B. an C. a D. the
15. Mr. John thanked me___________ helping him with the homework.
A. to B. for C. of D. on
16. _______________it was a formal dinner party, James wore his blue Jeans.
A. Even though B. Since C. Only if D. Until
17. Population growth rate_______________ in recent years.
A. has fallen B. had fallen C. have fallen D. fell
18. The children were warned ______ in the lake without an adult present.
A. not swim B. not to swim C. not swimming D. to not swim
19. It's no use_____________ ask him ______________us.
A. asking / helping B. asking / to help C. to ask/ helping D. to ask / to help
20. My handbag was stolen ____________we were playing tennis.
A. before B. while C. after D. during
21. If I had enough money , I ___________ a good dictionary.
A. would buy B. would have bought C. will buy D. will have bought
22. He ____________me that if he were me, he would do that work.
A. told B. said to me C. said D. says
23. Lan: What do you think of the General Knowledge Quiz?
Nga:______________________ . It's an opportunity to test my general knowledge.
A. Yes, that's right B. Oh, it's great C. It's not a good idea. D. Ok, I don't agree
24. Lan : "I've passed my exam." Mai : "_______________________"
A. Good luck. B. That's a good idea. C. It's nice of you to say so. D. Congratulations
PART II. Read the passage and choose the correct answer for each question (1 ms)
The world's population increased from 3 billion in 1959 to 6 billion by 1999, a doubling that occurred over 40 years. The Census Bureau's latest projections show that population growth will continue in the 21st century, although more slowly. The world's population is projected to grow from 6 billion in 1999 to 9 billion by 2042, an increase of 50 percent that will require 43 years.
The world's population growth rate rose from about 1.5 percent per year from 1950 to 1951 to a peak of over 2 percent in the early 1960s due to rising age at marriage as well as increasing availability and use of effective birth-control methods. Note that changes in population growth have not always been steady. A dip in the growth rate from 1959- 1960, for instance, was due to the Great leap Forward in China. During that time, both natural disasters and decreased agricultural output in the wake of massive social reorganization caused China's death rate to rise sharply and its fertility rate to fall by almost half.
25. How many people did the world's population increase between 1959 and 1999?
A. 3 billion B. 40 million C. 9 billion D. 6 billion
26. Which sentence is True?
A. In 1990, there are about 6 billion people all over the world.
B. Population growth in the 21st century was more than that in the 20th century.
C. The world's population is dramatically decreasing.
D. Population growth in the 20th century was more than that in the 21st century.
27. The word require in line 4 means...........
A. take B. pass C. spend D. have
28. The population growth rate decreased due to .............
A. early marriage B. good health care
C. reductions in mortality D. the effective birth-control methods.
29. In 1959-1960, the population growth in China..............
A. was steady B. increased rapidly C. decreased D. was unchanged
PART III. Rewrite the following sentences as suggested. (2 ms)
30. They let me choose a pencil, and I took the red pencil. (Using one or ones)
=> ................................................................................................................................
31. Because Peter didn't study his lessons carefully, he got bad marks for the Chemistry test.
=> If ..................................................................................................................................
32. "Thank you very much. You help me a lot," the boy said to his sister.
=> The boy thanked his sister ................................................................................................
33. The criminal removed all traces of his crime. He left the building (perfect participate).
=> ................................................................................................................................
34. "Could you pass me the book?" she asked me.
=> She asked .......................................................................................................................
35. "If I had a guitar here, I would sing you a song," he said.
=> He said ...........................................................................................................................
PART IV:
A. Make the complete sentences using the words given. (1ms)
36. I/ have/ birthday party/ house/ 8 p.m. / November 19th.
=> ................................................................................................................................
37. Last night/ Linda/ work/ on/ computer/ when/ she/ hear/ strange noise.
=> ................................................................................................................................
B. Translate from Vietnamese to English and vice versa:
38. Cô ấy nói với tôi rằng nếu tôi là bạn, tôi sẽ viếng thăm chùa Hương.
=> .................................................................................
39. You could try to make people feel more relaxed by introducing yourself to someone who friendly-looking.
=> ...........................................................................................................
PART V. Give the correct form of the word in parentheses to complete each sentence. (2ms)
40. Anne hoped (invite)............................. to join the private club.
41. I've never fallen in such an (embarrass)............................ situation before.
42. The most important thing we should do now is to fight against (literate).....................
43. I suddenly remembered that I (forget) ............................ my keys.
44. While I (do)............................. some shopping yesterday, I saw your friend.
45. Many people enjoy (travel) ........................... to different parts of the world.
46. What's the (populate).......................... of your country?
47. The teacher let him (stay) ..................... at home to finish the assignment.
Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....
Đề thi Giữa Học kì 1
Năm học 2023
Bài thi môn: Tiếng Anh lớp 10
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút
(không kể thời gian phát đề)
(Đề số 3)
Part A: Multiple Choice
I.Read the passage and chose the best word for each blank.
All early television was broadcast in black and white. Color television was possible but it was too (1) _____ and of very poor quality until the middle of the 1950s. Color television broadcasts began in the United States in 1954, in Japan in 1960, and in Europe in 1967.
The first (2) _____ on the moon was broadcast live on television in 1969, and now television programs are transmitted all over the world immediately through the use of satellites that transmit the signals from the earth, through (3) _____, and back to the earth.
More people now (4) _____ their news and information through television than through newspapers and radio. The development of television is one of the most rapid and exciting (5) _____ of our century.
1. A. bulky B. complicated C. expensive D. valuable
2. A. arriving B. flying C. landing D. moving
3. A. space B. atmosphere C. distance D. area
4. A. have B. get C. take D. bring
5. A. problems B. facts C. events D. Issues
II. Choose ONE sentence that is closest in meaning with the original one.
Question 6: The football match was cancelled because it rained.
A. We postponed the football match whether it rained or not.
B. We planned to watch a football match because we didn’t know it would rain.
C. Despite the rain, we watched the football match as planned.
D. The football match was cancelled because of the rain.
Question 7: I have been learning English for seven years.
A. I started to learn English for seven years.
B. I started to learn English seven years ago.
C. I have started to learn English for seven years. .
D. I didn't start to learn English seven years ago.
III. Choose the best answer to complete each sentence or replace the underlined words or phrases
Question 8: In large cases, children feel that they cannot _____ with the teacher.
A. contact B. interact C. transmit D. relax
Question 9: What makes computer a miraculous device?
A. strange B. powerful C. magical D. excellent
Question 10: A _____ is a film with factual information, often about a problem in society.
A. series B. soap opera C. documentary D. drama
Question 11: She earned a degree in Physics with flying colours
A. make less severe B. keep in mind C. developed mind D. with a very high mark
Question 12: A _____ is a film with factual information, often about a problem in society.
A. series B. soap opera C. documentary D. drama
Question 13: A: I think we should widen the roads.
B: _____. If the roads are widened, cars and lorries can get to our village.
A. That’s a good idea B. I don’t agree with you
C. I don’t think so D. I disagree with you
Question 14: What do you usually do at 17:00 p.m?
A. He has an English lesson. B. He usually plays football
C. He gets up and brush his teeth B. He has breakfast and goes to school
Question 15 : Tom: _________________
Tony: For three years.
A. How long you have lived here? B. How long have you lived here?
C. How many years you lived here? D. How far did you live here?
Question 16: Internet cafes allow you _____ your web-based e-mail account.
A. to access B. accessing C. access D. be accessed
Question 17: “Have fun, but don’t forget. You have to finish that paper.” “I know, Mom _______ it tomorrow. I already have the envelope.”
A. I’m mailing B. I won’t mail C. I mail D. I am going to mail
Question 18: We live near a special school for people who can’t hear.
A. the dump B. the deaf C. the blind D. the sick
Question 19: ______________ I told the absolute truth, no one would believe me.
A. because B. in spite of C. since D. Although
Question 20: Only one of the people _________ work in the company is qualified.
A. what B. which C. who D. where
Question 21: Henry _______________(live) in New York for ten years before he ___________ (move) to Chicago last month.
A. has lived/ move B. had lived/moved C. had lived/ has lived D. lived/had moved
III. Choose the underlined word or phrase that needs correcting
Question 22: They used to living in Finland, but now they live in France.
A B C D
Question 23: Television can make things memory because it presents information is an effective way.
A B C D
Question 24: I ‘ll give you a call if I ‘ll need some help tomorrow
A B C D
IV. Choose the word whose primary stress is pronounced differently from that of the others.
Question 25: A. paper B. famous C. rain D. channel
Question 26: A. picture B. suggest C. sunburnt D. Future
V. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others.
Question 27 : A. Background B. career C. second D. private
Question 28 : A. alternate B. interfere C. stimulate D. satisfy
PART B: WRITING
Rewrite the following sentences with the words given in the way that the rewritten one is closest in meaning with the original one.
Question 1: Mary saw the map. She went to the hospital.
-> After………………………………………………………
Question 2: A dictionary is a book. This gives you the meaning of words. (Connector“Which”)
..................................................................................................................
Write the correct form of the words in brackets.
Question 3: I think this game will be __________. (interest)
Question 4: They often go to Vung Tau at the weekend. (Wh- question)
……………………………………………………………………………
Rewrite the following sentences with the words given in brackets in the way that the rewritten one is closest in meaning with the original one.
Question 5: “ I’ll leave here tomorrow”, she said. (reported speech)
…………………………………………………………………………..
Question 6: Has somebody invited Lan to the party? (passive voice)
……………………………………………………………
Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....
Đề thi Giữa Học kì 1
Năm học 2023
Bài thi môn: Tiếng Anh lớp 10
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút
(không kể thời gian phát đề)
(Đề số 4)
I. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions.
Câu 1: A. picture B. adventure C. future D. mature
Câu 2: A. urgent B. surface C. hurry D. curtain
Câu 3: A. beat B. heat C. meat D. breakfast
Câu 4: A. worked B. stopped C. wanted D. forced
Câu 5: A. books B. lives C. gets D. repeats
II. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions
Câu 6: If you work hard, you will eventually ______.
A. succeed B. successfully C. successful D. success
Câu 7: But her real joy was "easing human suffering". The founding of the Radium Institute in 1914 made her humanitarian wish ______ true.
A. came B. come C. to come D. comes
Câu 8: They had eaten everything ______ I arrived at the party.
A. by the time B. at the time C. whenever D. the time
Câu 9: The lift is out of order, _____ is too bad.
A. whom B. where C. who D. which
Câu 10: The old _____ our care.
A. needs B. need C. needing D. to need
Câu 11: Finally in 1891, Marie, with _____money to live on, went to Paris to realise her dream at the Sorbonne.
A. very few B. very little C. very many D. very a little
Câu 12: Do you mind ______ the cooking?
A. to do B. for doing C. doing D. do
Câu 13: The baby ______ wonderfully up to now.
A. has behaved B. behaved C. is behaving D. behaves
Câu 14: Lan: “ Good afternoon!” Nam: “______”
A. Goodbye. See you later. B. Hello. How are you?
C. Nice to meet you? D. Bye.
Câu 15: The ______ are those who can’t use a part of the body in a normal way.
A. unemployed B. mentally-retarded C. disabled D. injured
Câu 16: Jane: ______
Kate: Everybody, except for my sister because she was on business.
A. Why did your sister attend the party? B. How was the party?
C. How about the party? D. Who attended your birthday party?
Câu 17: David can make an airplane appear and disappear ______.
A. magical B. magic C. magic’s D. magically
Câu 18: His pronunciation causes me many ______.
A. difficult B. difficultly C. difficulties D. difficulty
Câu 19: This is the most ______ film I have ever watched.
A. excitement B. exciting C. excited D. excite
Câu 20: David Brown worked ______ a tourist guide from June 1999 to December 2002. He really liked his job.
A. as B. on C. for D. with
Câu 21: By the time my mother______ home, I ______ all my homework.
A. got/ had done. B. got/ did. C. got / had did. D. had got / had done.
Câu 22: Everybody______ happily. Suddenly they______ smoke.
A. was dancing/ smelt B. had danced/ smelt.
C. danced/ smelt. D. were dancing/ smelt
Câu 23: I will go to bed until I ______ all my exercises.
A. have finished B. will finish C. has finished D. am finishing
Câu 24: He often practises speaking English with the native ______.
A. speaking B. spoke C. speakers D. speak
Câu 25: Lindsay Lewis ______ research at Bristol University in the 1980s.
A. made B. had made C. had done D. did
Câu 26: The purpose of this test is to ______ the weight of the chemical element.
A. interrupt B. measure C. find out D. ease
III. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Câu 27: I often talk to my fellow peasants when we have free time.
A. farmers B. doctors C. lawyers D. teachers
Câu 28: After lunch, I often take a short rest.
A. destination B. plough C. excursion D. break
Câu 29: Linh always has a very busy timetable for the whole week.
A. schedule B. routine C. holiday D. life
Câu 30: No matter what may happen, you should never give up hopes.
A. create B. be satisfied with C. begin D. stop
IV. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to choose the word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
EDUCATION IN ENGLAND
Every child in Great Britain between the age of five and fifteen must (31) ______ school. There (32) ______ three main types of education institutions: primary (elementary) schools, secondary schools, and universities.
State schools are free, and attendance is compulsory. Morning school begins at nine o’clock and lasts until half past four. School is open five days a week.
(33) ______ Saturdays and Sundays, there are no lessons. There are holidays at Christmas, Easter and in summer. In London as in all cities, there are two grades of state schools for those (34) ______ will go to work at fifteen: primary schools for boys and girls between the ages of five and eleven, and secondary schools for children from eleven to fifteen.
The lessons are reading, writing, the English language, English literature, English history, geography, (35) ______ ,nature study, drawing, painting, singing, woodwork and drill.
Câu 31: A. go B. come C. attend D. arrive
Câu 32: A. is B. has C. have D. are
Câu 33: A. For B. On C. At D. In
Câu 34: A. when B. where C. which D. who
Câu 35: A. scientifically B. scientific C. science D. scientist
V. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
The first school for blind, deaf and mute children in the Tibet Autonomous Region celebrated its first anniversary on Friday. The school is built in the eastern suburb of Lhasa, capital of Tibet, and is designed to hold 200 students. It covers 20,000 square meters.The school curriculum includes Braille and sign language training, Tibetan, mathematics, writing, ethics training, physical education, arts, handicrafts, speech and walking courses. At the celebration, the audience was touched by a silent song expressed by the students with sign language. BaibaToinzhub, a 10-year-old blind child, can speak fluent Chinese and is good at singing and dancing. He told the visitors that life in the boarding school was comfortable.
Câu 36: What type of students attend the school?
A. Children who cannot see, hear, or speak.
B. Children who live in the Tibet Autonomous Region.
C. Children with a variety of disabilities.
D. Children who are visually impaired.
Câu 37: The school is located in ______.
A. the capital of Tibet B. the eastern of Tibet
C. 20,000 square meters D. the suburb of the capital of Tibet
Câu 38: The school is ______.
A. built in Tibet B. able to hold 200 students
C. 20,000 square kilometers in area D. the first boarding school in Tibet
Câu 39: Which subject is taught in the school?
A. Computers B. Physics C. Foreign languages D. Braille
Câu 40: Which of the following is NOT true?
A. Life in the boarding school is comfortable.
B. Tibet’s first deaf-mute school celebrated its 10th birthday.
C. BaibaToinzhub can sing and dance very well.
D. The visitors were touched by a silent song.
VI. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is CLOSEST in meaning to the sentence given in each of the following questions.
Câu 41: We hope to receive a message from our mutual friend, Susan.
A. Our mutual friend, Susan, whom we hope to receive a message.
B. Susan, who’s our mutual friend, is hoped to receive a message from.
C. We’re looking forward to receiving a message from our mutual friend, Susan.
D. We wish we received a message from our mutual friend, Susan.
Câu 42: Minh wishes he had taken part in the English competition last week.
A. Minh now regrets not having attended the English competition last week.
B. Minh would never mind not attending the English competition last week.
C. Minh really enjoyed attending the English competition last week.
D. Not attending the English competition last week was Minh’s big mistake.
Câu 43: We really do not want to hear your explanation again.
A. We are fed up with hearing your explanation again.
B. We would rather not ask you to give any explanation again.
C. Your explanation really makes us feel sorry.
D. We are extremely sorry for hearing your explanation again.
Câu 44: I didn’t use to like football.
A. When I was young, I liked football, but now I don’t.
B. I don’t like football.
C. Once I didn’t like football, but now I do.
D. I wasn’t accustomed to football.
Câu 45: The dictionary was so expensive that I didn’t buy it.
A. The dictionary was too expensive for me to buy it.
B. It was an expensive dictionary so that meant I didn’t buy it.
C. It was such an expensive dictionary that I didn’t buy it.
D. The dictionary was enough expensive for me to buy.
VII. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
Câu 46: The stories what I’ve told you are all true.
A. I’ve told B. are C. true D. what
Câu 47: I succeeded in to find a job, so my parents didn’t make me go to college.
A. didn’t make B. to find C. go D. succeeded in
Câu 48:It often takes me about fifteen minutes to go to work from here by foot.
A. to go to work B. It often takes C. fifteen minutes D. by foot
Câu 49: Marie Curie was the first womanreceived a Doctor of Science degree from Sorbonne University.
A. Sorbonne B. received
C. Doctor of Science degree D. the first woman
Câu 50:He advised me to consider all the factors before decided to accept the job.
A. advised B. decided C. factors D. to consider
Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....
Đề thi Giữa Học kì 1
Năm học 2023
Bài thi môn: Tiếng Anh lớp 10
Thời gian làm bài: phút
(không kể thời gian phát đề)
(Đề số 5)
I. Circle the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the other words. (1 point)
1. A. education 2. A. death 3. A. chat 4. A. above |
B. met B. breath B. panic B. son |
C. general C. ease C. fast C. sunshine |
D. extremely D. leather D. passenger D. women |
II. Put the verbs in brackets into the correct form. (1.5 points)
1. You (see) …………………. Nam last Sunday? – Oh, no. I (not / see) ……….….…… him for many days now.
2. Yesterday morning I............................... (remember) the answer to the question Bob.......................... (ask) me the night before, so I ............................... (phone) him.
3. You don’t need (pay) …………….…… the money back for a year.
III. Supply the correct form of the word in bold. (1.5 points)
1. We should choose a …………………………… place for our picnic next weekend. (SUIT)
2. My brother is fond of doing …………………………… research. (SCIENCE)
3. The most common …………………………. is about poor service. (COMPLAIN)
4. He lost the game because of his …………………………… (CARE)
5. Books help people to get more………………………………... (KNOW)
6. We’re so…………………………. of her for telling the truth. ( PRIDE)
IV.Read the passage and make up the questions and then answer them. (2 points)
My name is Anderson and I’ve been here just a few days. I’m from out of town. I have several friends in this city and I’ve come to visit them. Actually, I
used to live in this city many years ago. I was born here and my wife was born in a little town nearby. We both went to school and had many friends here. We’ve been in New York for more than fifteen years. We live in the suburbs and I work in the city. I have to get up early every day to go to work. I work from 9 o’clock in the morning until a little after six o’clock in the evening.
1. What / Mr. Anderson / do / here? ………………………………………..
2. Mr. Anderson / ever live / this city? ……………………………………..
3. How long / the Andersons / live / New York? ……………………………………
4. Mr. Anderson / have to work / 10 o’clock / morning? ……………………………
V. There is a MISTAKE in each of the sentences, underline the mistake and CORRECT it. (2.5 points)
1.The doctor called this morning while you slept. ……………………..
2. Get more exercise appears to be the best way to lose weight. …………
3. Let's stop to watch so much TV so that we can read or go out instead. Fountain pens first became commercial available about a hundred years ago. …………
4. She lived in London for five years before she moved to New York.…………..
VI. Rewrite each sentence, beginning as shown, so that the meaning stays the same. (1.5 points)
1. Is this the only way to reach the city centre?
→ Isn’t there ………………………………………………………………?
2. He was sorry he hadn’t said goodbye to her at the airport.
→ He regretted ……………………………………………………
3. The robber had run away before the police arrived.
→ When the police …………………………………………….. .. escaped.
4. The last time he wrote to his parents was two months ago.
→ He ………………………………………………………………
5. It took us five hours to get to London.
→à We spent ………………………………………….……………
6. Smoking is not allowed in the ward.
→ Would you mind ……………………………………………….?
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