Đề thi Giữa kì 2 Tiếng Anh 11 mới có đáp án (5 đề)
Đề thi Giữa kì 2 Tiếng Anh 11 mới có đáp án (5 đề)
Haylamdo biên soạn và sưu tầm Đề thi Giữa kì 2 Tiếng Anh 11 mới có đáp án (5 đề) được tổng hợp chọn lọc từ đề thi môn Tiếng Anh 11 của các trường trên cả nước sẽ giúp học sinh có kế hoạch ôn luyện từ đó đạt điểm cao trong các bài thi Tiếng Anh lớp 11.
Đề thi Giữa kì 2 Tiếng Anh 11 năm 2024
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Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....
Đề thi Giữa kì 2
Môn: Tiếng Anh thí điểm lớp 11
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút
(Đề 1)
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. scholar B. technique C. archaeology D. achievement
Question 2: A. ancient B. concern C. associate D. special
Question 3: A. itinerary B. abundant C. elegance D. landscape
Question 4: A. tomb B. dome C. mosaic D. poetic
Question 5: A. numerous B. luxury C. perfume D. moment
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 6: I'd like to book a room with a/an ____ of the sea.
A. outlook B. sight
C. view D. scenery
Question 7: When I'm on holiday, I enjoy ____.
A. getting sunburnt B. getting sunstroke
C. having a sunbath D. sunbathing
Question 8: The most popular destinations for ____ holidays are Spain, Italy, and Greece.
A. charter B. package
C. packed D. packet
Question 9: When you are staying at a popular resort, there are plenty of ____ to go on.
A. excursions B. expeditions
C. pilgrimages D. sightseeing
Question 10: One day when I'm rich and famous, I'm going to go on a round-the-world ____.
A. cruise B. sail
C. self-catering D. survival
Question 11: You can save money by choosing a ____ holiday.
A. do-it-yourself B. self-catering
C. self-study D. survival
Question 12: My favourite part of England is Cornwall. There's some absolutely beautiful ____ there.
A. nature B. signs
C. scenery D. views
Question 13: There's a pretty little fishing village ____.
A. by the sea B. on the sand
C. on the beach D. by the shore
Question 14: There's a path that ____ out of the village to a beautiful 14th-century church.
A. follows B. moves
C. takes D. leads
Question 15: Costa Rica is one of the most beautiful places I have ever visited. Wherever you go, you can see the ____ of volcanoes, some of which are still alive.
A. tops B. heads
C . mouths D. ends
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s)in each of the following questions.
Question 16: The balance and harmonious blending of various elements contribute to Taj Mahal's unique beauty.
A. successful B. agreeable
C. tasteful D. fitting
Question 17: My Son Sanctuary is a large complex of religious relics comprising more than 70 architectural works such as towers, temples, and tombs.
A. royal B. precious
C. holy D. valuable
Question 18: In addition to exploring the caves and grottos, and seeing its flora and fauna, visitors can also enjoy mountain climbing.
A. flowers and plants
B. plants and animals
C. plants and vegetation
D. flowers and grass
Question 19: Ha Long Bay has attracted millions of visitors who come to enjoy its breathtaking views and experience other activities.
A. unbreathable B. heartbreaking
C. awe-inspiring D. unforgettable
Question 20: They can enjoy the -comfort and elegance of five-star hotels and luxury cruise ships.
A. style B. convenience
C. standard D. grace
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
One of the seven wonders of the ancient world, the Great Pyramid of Giza was a monument of wisdom and prophecy built as a tomb for Pharaoh Cheops in 2720 B.C. Despite its antiquity, certain aspects of its construction make it one of the truly great wonders of the world. The thirteen-acre structure near the Nile River is a solid mass of stone blocks covered with limestone. Inside are a number of hidden passageways and the burial chamber for the Pharaoh. It is the largest single structure in the world. The four sides of the pyramid are aligned almost exactly on true north, south, east, and west – an incredible engineering feat. The ancient Egyptians were sun worshipers and great astronomers, so computations for the Great Pyramid were based on astronomical observations.
Explorations and detailed examinations of the base of the structure reveal many intersecting lines. Further scientific study indicates that these represent a type of timeline of events – past, present, and future. Many of the events have been interpreted and found to coincide with known facts of the past. Others are prophesied for future generations and are currently under investigation. Many believe that pyramids have supernatural powers, and this one is no exception. Some researchers even associate it with extraterrestrial beings of the ancient past. Was this superstructure made by ordinary beings, or one built by a race far superior to any known today?
Question 21: The word “intersecting” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ____.
A. crossing B. aligning
C. observing D. cutting
Question 22: What do the intersecting lines in the base symbolise?
A. Architects' plans for the hidden passages.
B. Pathways of the great solar bodies.
C. Astrological computations.
D. Dates of important events taking place throughout time.
Question 23: The word "prophesied” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ____.
A. affiliated B. precipitated
C. terminated D. foretold
Question 24: Extraterrestrial beings are ____.
A. very strong workers
B. astronomers in the ancient times
C. researchers in Egyptology
D. living beings from other planets
Question 25: What is the best title for the passage?
A. Symbolism of the Great Pyramid
B. Problems with the Construction of the Great Pyramid
C. Wonders of the Great Pyramid of Giza
D. Exploration of the Burial Chamber of Cheops
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges.
Question 26: “I'm not hot. I'm absolutely roasting” – “____”
A. You lucky thing! I'm sure you'll enjoy it.
B. Let's go and cool down in the sea.
C. You'll get a lovely suntan.
D. Maybe you've got a sun stroke.
Question 27: “Why don't you take your T-shirt off?” – “____”
A. That sounds like a good idea.
B. Yes, let's take it off.
C. No, of course not. It's boiling here.
D. Because I don't want to get sunburnt.
Question 28: “____” – “That's a good idea! Then we'll still have a couple of hours left.”
A. I'd like to suggest we see the Imperial first. Then we'll have more time for the second attraction.
B. Why don't we see the Imperial first? Then we'll have more time for the second attraction.
C. What do you think about we see the Imperial first? Then we'll have more time for the second attraction.
D. How about see the Imperial first? Then we'll have more time for the second attraction.
Question 29: “____” – “I'd like to see a cultural one.”
A. Would you like to visit a natural or a cultural world heritage site?
B. Which site is worth visiting in Hue? The Citadel or the Royal Tombs?
C. Would you like to go to Tomb of Minh Mang or the Citadel of the Ho Dynasty?
D. Do you prefer seeing the Citadel of the Ho Dynasty or Tomb of Minh Mang
Question 30: “Can you recommend a good guest house in this area?” – “____”
A. I know. I prefer a B and B round the corner.
B. Yes, there's a nice B and B round the corner.
C. Wow! It's very kind of you to ask me.
D. Let's stop at the first hotel we find.
Đáp án
| 1D | 2B | 3D | 4A | 5B |
| 6C | 7D | 8B | 9A | 10A |
| 11B | 12C | 13A | 14D | 15A |
| 16B | 17C | 18B | 19C | 20D |
| 21A | 22D | 23D | 24D | 25C |
| 26B | 27D | 28B | 29A | 30B |
Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....
Đề thi Giữa kì 2
Môn: Tiếng Anh thí điểm lớp 11
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút
(Đề 2)
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. organiser B. comfortable C. technology D. populated
Question 2: A. presentation B. pessimistic C. residential D. innovative
Question 3: A. renewable B. sustainable C. insfrastructure D. environment
Question 4: A. familiar B. generate C. assignment D. pollutant
Question 5: A. overcrowded B. inhabitant C. geography D. convenient
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 6: Today Islamabad is a thriving city of about 1 million people. It offers a healthy climate, a pollution-free atmosphere, plenty of water, and many green spaces.
A. healthy B. prosperous
C. modern D. green
Question 7: Scientists hope that this new drug will be a major breakthrough in the fight against AIDS.
A. new cure B. important therapy
C. sudden remedy D. dramatic development
Question 8: They design and carry out projects aiming to reduce fossil fuel consumption, find renewable fuels for public transport, and promote other clean air efforts.
A. inexhaustible
B. recyclable
C. green
D. environmentally-friendly
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 9: If I take the pessimistic viewpoint, Tokyo won't be a safe place to live in.
A. negative B. optimistic
C. optical D. neutral
Question 10: To reduce carbon emissions into the atmosphere, ways to limit the use of private cars must be found.
A. public B. personal
C. common D. shared
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges.
Question 11: “What if I quit more than 3 sessions?” – “____”
A. You won't take the final exam.
B. You wouldn't take the final exam.
C. You wouldn't be able to take the final exam.
D. You can't take the final exam.
Question 12: “____” – “Yes, I love it here. Everything I want is only five minutes away.”
A. It's convenient to live here, isn't it?
B. It's comfortable to live here, isn't it?
C. It's inconvenient to live here, isn't it?
D. It's uncomfortable to live here, isn't it?
Question 13: “City dwellers are always so busy, aren't they?" – "____”
A. No, they aren't. Everybody's rushing about all the time.
B. Not really. Everybody's rushing about all the time.
C. I'm not sure. Everybody's rushing about all the time.
D. Yes, everybody's rushing about all the time.
Question 14: “____” – “London's so big. It took me ages to find my way round.”
A. What about London?
B. What was London?
C. How was London?
D. How about London?
Question 15: “Most cities aren't safe places to live, are they?" – "____”
A. No, I'm afraid. There are always what they call ‘no-go areas'.
B. Yes, they are. There are always what they call ‘no-go areas’.
C. Well, the opposite is true. There are always what they call ‘no-go areas’.
D. On the contrary. There are always what they call ‘no-go areas'.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
MARRAKECH
Where can you go in January for almost guaranteed sunshine – without travelling for most of the day to get there? The answer is Marrakech in Morocco, a four-hour (106) ____ from Britain, where the average temperature is a pleasant 66°F.
Marrakech is a city of (107) ____ beauty, with its pink buildings and green palm trees contrasting with the snow-covered (108) ____ of the Atlas Mountains in the distance. For tourists, there's the added attraction of excellent food at reasonable prices, and high quality accommodation, such as Hotel La Momounia, (109) ____ as one of the top hotels in the world.
(110) ____ Marrakech is one of Morocco's busiest and most modern cities, the influence of the Middle Ages is still very evident. (111) ____ can admire the battlements, towers, and mosques, which were built (112) ____ centuries ago. And forget about shopping malls – for perfumes, fabrics, antiques, spices and crafts, (113) ____ the ‘souks’, open-air market places where you'll almost (114) ____ find something to take back home.
For those who want to (115) ____ sport Marrakech has plenty to offer. In addition to golf and tennis, there is also skiing on the slopes of the high Atlas Mountains, where the views of the surrounding area are quite spectacular. Alternatively, you could just relax by a heated swimming pool and dream of your next visit.
Question 16: A. travel B. trip C. flight D. voyage
Question 17: A. big B. great C. large D. high
Question 18: A. peaks B. hills C. heads D. surfaces
Question 19: A. thought B. regarded C. believed D. guessed
Question 20: A. Because B. However C. Despite D. Although
Question 21: A. Spectators B. Viewers C. Sightseers D. Onlookers
Question 22: A. several B. plenty C. other D. all
Question 23: A. work out B. put up with C. head for D. make up for
Question 24: A. likely B. certainly C. probably D. possibly
Question 25: A. do B. exercise C. take off D. go in
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
LESSONS FROM CURITIBA
Urban planning deals with the physical, economic, and social development of cities. Today urban populations are increasing rapidly, and growing cities are putting enormous pressure on the environment. For this reason, the type of urban planning found in Curitiba, in southern Brazil, is more important than ever.
Curitiba is a fine example of how urban planning can work. This has not always been the case, however. At one time, Curitiba faced the same problems as many other cities all over the world, namely overcrowding, pollution, and an increased demand for services, transport, and housing. How, then, did Curitiba address these problems?
By the 1940s the population of Curitiba had grown to about 150,000 as immigrants from countries such as Japan, Syria, and Lebanon came to work in agriculture and industry. These people needed both housing and transportation. Curitiba's leaders realised that it was not sensible to deal with these problems separately. Consequently, they employed a French planner and architect, Alfred Agache, to find an overall solution.
Agache studied all aspects of the problem. He designed a scheme which gave priority to public services such as sanitation and public transport. At the same time, the scheme included centres which helped both community life and commerce to develop, and reduced traffic congestion. This was the first scheme to address several problems of growing cities at the same time. Unfortunately, some parts of his plan were not completed. The result, as described below, was that his scheme only served Curitiba for another 20 years.
By the 1960s, the population of Curitiba had grown to about 430,000 inhabitants, so the city had to rethink its needs. In order to do this, the mayor put together a team of architects and town planners led by Jaime Lerner. This team produced the Curitiba Master Plan. This consisted of taking Agache's original plan and adding wide, high-speed roads which crossed the smaller streets. Their proposals also included plans to minimise urban growth, reduce city centre traffic, and preserve the city's historic district. It is clear that the Curitiba Master Plan was one of the first attempts to integrate all aspects of city planning.
This integrated approach to urban design was maintained throughout the 1980s as Curitiba's population grew to almost one million inhabitants. Environmental facilities were added, such as a recycling programme for household waste, and parks and 'green' spaces were protected from development. However, good transportation remained central to the planning.
Good transportation still remains a priority, together with the needs for jobs. A growing population needs employment, so business parks and centres have been added to encourage new small businesses. All these changes will continue be the population of Curitiba increases, but its city planners are continually searching for solutions to the problems.
Question 26: What aspect of development does urban planning NOT deal with?
A. physical development
B. technical development
C. economic development.
D. social development
Question 27: How many problems are mentioned in the passage as commonly shared by many cities?
A. 2 B. 3
C. 4 D. 5
Question 28: What was the main cause of the increase in Curitiba's population Delore the 1940s?
A. immigrants from rural areas
B. workers in business park
C. immigrants from neighbouring countries
D. immigrants from Japan, Syria, and Lebanon
Question 29: In what ways was Agache’s approach different?
A. His scheme gave priority to public services.
B. His scheme included centres which helped both community life and commerce to develop.
C. His scheme reduced traffic congestion.
D. His scheme addressed several problems at the same time.
Question 30: What did the Curitiba Master Plan do?
A. added better road system
B. reduced urban growth
C. prohibit city-centre traffic
D. all of the above
Đáp án
| 1C | 2D | 3C | 4B | 5A |
| 6B | 7D | 8A | 9B | 10A |
| 11D | 12A | 13D | 14C | 15A |
| 16C | 17B | 18A | 19A | 20D |
| 21C | 22A | 23C | 24C | 25B |
| 26B | 27D | 28D | 29D | 30D |
Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....
Đề thi Giữa kì 2
Môn: Tiếng Anh thí điểm lớp 11
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút
(Đề 3)
Mark the letter A, B, C. or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to each of the following sentences
Question 1: Mary: “Would you mind if I use your computer for an hour?” Tony:"_____”
A. Not at all. I've finished my job
B. Yes, you can use it
C. Of course not. I still need it now
D. Yes. It’s all right.
Question 2: Tom: "Do you think it's going to rain?” - Trump: “_______”
A. I don't hope so B. I don't hope so
C. I hope not D. I think not
Mark the letter A, B. C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following
Question 3: An international medical conference initiated by Davison resulted in the birth of the League of Red Cross Societies in 1991.
A. treated B. dedicated
C. helped D. started
Question 4: He drove so fast that I really felt my life was in danger.
A. at the target B. in accident
C. at stake D. in comfort
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following sentences
Question 5: My father is in_______ of 30 engineers and 80 workers.
A. pressure B. leadership
C. impression D. charge
Question 6: ________taken my parents’ advice, I wouldn't be a teacher now.
A. Had I B. If I hadn’t
C. If I would have D. Could I have
Question 7: He is decorating his house ___________selling it.
A. in order to B. with a view to
C. in order that D. so that
Question 8: On_________ he had won the first prize in the competition, he cried out with joy.
A. being told B. having cold
C. telling D. saying
Question 9: By the end of this March he ______here for 20 years.
A. has been living
B. will live
C. will have been living
D. will be living
Question 10:The government is aiming___________ 50% reduction______ unemployment
A. at /of B. in/ to
C. on/ at D. at /in
Question 11: I am not going to study French and__________
A. so is he B. neither is he
C. he isn’t too D. either isn’t he
Question 12: Many young people in rural areas don`t want to spend their lives on the farm like______ parents.
A. weather-beaten B. up-to-date
C. long-term D. wide-range
Question 13: I believe nobody survived the plane crash_________
A. did I B. didn’t they
C. did they D. did he
Question 14: ________they arrived __________they were told to go back.
A. No sooner/when B. Scarcely had/when
C. Scarcely/when D. Hardly/when
Question 15: Yuri Gagarin was the first person __________into space
A. has traveled B. traveling
C. traveled D. to travel
Question 16: To preserve that _________, it was necessary to preserve the people that had created it.
A. civilize B. civilization
C. civility D. civil
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions
Question 17: A. kite B. bite C. favorite D. quite
Question 18: A. coached B. needed C. wanted D. beloved
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks
Schools in the United States have not always had a large number of libraries. As recently as 1958 about half of the public schools in the United States had no libraries at all. The (19)_______of public school libraries increased dramatically when the federal government passed the Elementary and Secondary Education Act of 1965, which provided funds for school districts to improve their education programs and facilities, including their libraries. (20) _______, many educators claim that since the legislation was passed federal spending has not increased sufficiently to meet the rising cost of new library technologies such as computer databases and Internet access.
Because the federal government provides only limited funds to schools, individual school districts (21)______ on funds from local property taxes to meet the vast majority of public schools tend to reflect the financial capabilities of the communities in which they are located. Districts in wealthy suburbs often have fully staffed libraries (22)________ abundant resources, spacious facilities, and curricular and instructional support. In (23) __________school districts in many poor areas house their libraries in ordinary classrooms or in small rooms. The libraries in such areas are generally staffed by volunteers, who organize and maintain books that are often out-of-date, irrelevant, or damaged.
Question 19: A. digit B. amount C. number D. numeral
Question 20: A. Otherwise B. Therefore C. Consequently D. Nevertheless
Question 21: A. rely B. come C. go D. stay
Question 22: A. for B. with C. on D. by
Question 23: A. conflict B. converse C. contrary D. contrast
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the questions
Question 24: By the time Robert will finish writing the first draft of his paper, most of the other students will have completed their final draft
A. will finish B. writing
C. most D. their
Question 25: The team leader demanded from his team members a serious attitude towards work, a good team spirit, and that they work hard
A. team leader
B. his team members
C. attitude towards work
D. and that they work hard
Question 26: Each of the beautiful cars in the shop was quickly sold to their owner
A. Each B. cars
C. quickly D. their
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer answer to each of the questions
An air pollutant is defined as a compound added directly or indirectly by humans to the atmosphere in such quantities as to affect humans, animals, vegetation, or materials adversely. Air pollution requires a very flexible definition that permits continuous change. When the first air pollution laws were established in England in the fourteenth century, air pollutants were limited to compounds that could be seen or smelled – a far cry from the extensive list of harmful substances known today. As technology has developed and knowledge of health aspects of various chemicals has increased, the list of air pollutants has lengthened. In the future, even water vapor might be considered an air pollutant under certain conditions. Many of more important air pollutants such as sulfur oxides, carbon monoxide, and nitrogen oxides, are found in nature. As the Earth developed, the concentrations of these pollutants were altered by various chemical reactions; they became components in biogeochemical cycle. These serve as an air purification scheme by allowing the compounds to move from the air to the water or soil on a global basis, nature's output of these compounds dwarfs that resulting from human activities.
However, human production usually occurs in a localized area, such as a city. In this localized regions, human output may be dominant and may temporarily overload the natural purification scheme of the cycle. The result is an increased concentration of noxious chemicals in the air. The concentrations at which the adverse effects appear will be greater than the concentrations that the pollutants would have in the absence of human activities. The actual concentration need not be large for a substance to be a pollutant; in fact the numerical value tells us little until we know how much of an increase this represents over the concentration that would occur naturally in the area. For example, sulfur dioxide has detectable health effects at 0.08 parts per million (ppm), which is about 400 times its natural level. Carbon monoxide, however, as a natural level of 0.1 ppm and is not usually a pollutant until its level reaches about 15 ppm.
Question 27: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The economic impact of air pollution
B. What constitutes an air pollutant
C. How much harm air pollutants can cause
D. The effects of compounds added to the atmosphere
Question 28: The word "adversely" is closest in meaning to
A. negatively B. quickly
C. admittedly D. considerably
Question 29: It can be inferred from the first paragraph that
A. water vapor is an air pollutant in localized areas
B. most air pollutants today can be seen or smelled
C. the definition of air pollution will continue to change
D. a substance becomes an air pollutant only in cities
Question 30: The word "these" in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to
A. the various chemical reactions
B. the pollutants from the developing Earth
C. the compounds mover to the water or soil
D. the components in biogeochemical cycles
Question 31: For which of the following reasons can natural pollutants play an important role in controlling air pollution?
A. They function as part of a purification process.
B. They occur in greater quantities than other pollutants.
C. They are less harmful to living beings than are other pollutants.
D. They have existed since the Earth developed.
Question 32: The word "localized” is closest in meaning to
A. specified B. circled
C. surrounded D. encircled
Question 33: The word "detectable" in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to
A. beneficial B. special
C. measurable D. separable
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the semtence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions
Question 34: People should not throw rubbish in the park. People should not cut down the trees in the park.
A. People should both cut down the trees and throw rubbish in the park
B. People should neither throw rubbish nor cut down the trees in the park.
C. People should throw rubbish and cut down the trees in the park.
D. People should either throw rubbish or cut down the trees in the park
Question 35: The team reached the top of the mountain. The team spent a night there.
A. The team had not only reached the top of the mountain, but they spend a night there as well.
B. Not only did the team reach the top of the mountain but they also spent a night there
C. Not only did the team reach the top of the mountain but they also spent a night there as well
D. The team both reach the top of the mountain but they also spent a night there
Đáp án
| 1A | 2B | 3D | 4B | 5D |
| 6A | 7B | 8A | 9C | 10D |
| 11B | 12A | 13C | 14B | 15D |
| 16B | 17C | 18A | 19C | 20D |
| 21A | 22B | 23D | 24A | 25D |
| 26D | 27C | 28A | 29C | 30D |
| 31A | 32A | 33C | 34B | 35B |
Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....
Đề thi giữa Học kì 2
Năm học 2024
Môn: Tiếng Anh lớp 11
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút
(Đề số 4)
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrases that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Children in the Netherlands must be at least four years old to (1)_______ primary education. Almost all 4-year-olds (99.3%) in the country indeed attend primary school, (2)________ this is not compulsory until children reach the age of. Primary school is free of charge. In most schools, children are grouped by age in mixed ability classes, with one teacher for all subjects. Primary school consists of 8 groups, thus schooling (3)_______ for 8 years. During the first two years, which is also called kindergarten, children receive an average of 22 hours of (4)______, during the last 6 years children receive an average of 25 hours per week. Schools are open 5 days a week, but children are free on Wednesday afternoon. At the end of primary school, or in group 8, schools advice on secondary school choice. Most schools use a national test to support this advice, for instance the ′Citotoets’, a test (5)_______ by the Central Institute for Test development.
Question 1. A. afford B. enter C. come D. run
Question 2. A. although B. despite C. inspite D. due to
Question 3. A. spends B. lasts C. lengthens D. takes
Question 4. A. educate B. educative C. educator D. education
Question 5. A. develop B. to develop C. developed D. developing
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
Preparation is a key to a successful interview. Does the idea of going to a job interview make you feel a little nervous? Many people find that it is the hardest part of the employing process. But it is not really true. The more you prepare and practice, the more comfortable you will feel. You should find out as much as possible about the company before you go to the interview. Understand the products that they produce and the services that they provide . It is also good to know who the customers are and who the major competitors are. Practice makes perfect. It will also make you feel more confident and relaxed. So, practice your answers to common. Make a list of questions to ask, too. Almost all interviewers will ask if you have . This is a great opportunity for you to show your keenness, enthusiasm, and knowledge.
Make a great impression . The interview is your chance to show that you are the best person for the job. Your application or resume has already exhibited that you are qualified. Now it is up to you to show how your skills and experience match this position and this company. The employer will be looking and listening to determine if you are a good fit. He site will be looking for a number of different qualities, in addition to the skills that you possess. To make the best impression, dress appropriately; express your strengths; arrive early, by about 10 – 15 minutes; be enthusiastic; shake hands firmly; be an active listener; sit up straight and maintain eye contact; and ask.
After the interview, follow up with a thank-you note. This is a chance for you to restate your interest and how you can benefit the company. Your best bet is to by to time it so that the note gets there before the hiring: decision is made. You should also follow up with a phone call if you do not hear back from the employer within the specified time.
Question 6. The pronoun “it” refers to ________.
A. the job B. the interview C. the interviewer D. the preparation
Question 7. What does the writer advise you to practice?
A. Asking and answering questions related to the job.
B. Making products that the company produces.
C. Providing services that the company serves.
D. Meeting some customers and competitors.
Question 8. Which should not be shown during your interview?
A. Punctuality B. A firm hand shaking
C. Being properly-dressed D. Weaknesses
Question 9. What shouldn’t you do to make the best impession?
A. listen actively B. a firm hand shaking
C. being properly-dressed D. weakness
Question 10. What does the employer look at to determine whether you are a good fit besides qualification?
A. experience B. skills C. qualities D. all of them
Question 11. You can show your qualifications in the _________.
A. dressing style and punctuality B. competing with the competitors
C. resume and letter of application D. eye contact with the interviewer
Question 12. The word “key” is closest in meaning to _________.
A. unnessesary B. important C. unessential D. properly
Question 13. Which is not included in the writer's advice?
A. You should not communicate with the interviewer after the interview.
B. You should make the best impression in the interview.
C. You should write a note to say thanks to the interviewer after the interview.
D. You should telephone the interviewer for any information after the interview.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
University Entrance Examination is very important to Vietnamese students. High school graduates have to take it and get high results to be admitted to universities. The pressure on the candidates remains very high despite the measures that have been taken to reduce the heat around these exams, since securing a place in a state university is considered a major step towards a successful career for young people, especially those from rural areas or disadvantaged families. In the year 2004, it was estimated that nearly 1 million Vietnamese students took the University Entrance Examination, but on average only 1 out of 5 candidates succeeded. Normally, candidates take 3 exam subjects, and each lasts 180 minutes for the fixed group of subjects they choose. There are 4 fixed groups of subjects: Group A: Mathematics, Physics, and Chemistry; Group B: Mathematics, Chemistry and Biology; Group C: Literature, History, and Geography; Group D: Literature, Foreign Language, and Mathematics.
In addition to universities, there are community colleges, art and technology institutes, professional secondary schools, and vocational schools which offer degrees or certificates from a-few-month to 2-year courses.
According to Vietnam’s Ministry of Education and Training, there are currently 23 non-public universities, accounting for 11% of the total number of universities. These non-public universities are currently training 119,464 students or 11.7% of the total number of students. The government is planning to increase the number of non-public universities to 30% by 2007.
Question 14. University Entrance Examination in Vietnam is very _________.
A. interesting B. stressful C. free D. easy
Question 15. The word “those” refers to _________.
A. exam subjects B. young people C. universities D. examinations
Question 16. In 2004, the proportion of the students who got success in University Entrance Examination was about _________ percent.
A. 5 B. 10 C. 20 D. 50
Question 17. Which sentence refers to the University Entrance Examination in Vietnam?
A. Students find it easy to get success in the University Entrance Examination.
B. Maths is compulsory in the University Entrance Examination.
C. Students are not allowed to choose their exam subjects.
D. There are four fixed groups of exam subjects for students to choose.
Question 18. The word “non-public” can be replaced by ________.
A. state B. goverment C. dependent D. private
Question 19. Which sentence is NOT true to the passage?
A. Getting admitted to universities is very important for young people to achieve success in their job.
B. High school graduates don’t have to take any exam in order to get a place in a university
C. It takes more than 2 years to complete vocational courses.
D. More than 1 million VNese students took the University Entrance Exam in 2004.
Question 20. According to the passage ________.
A. the Vietnamese government will close all non-public universities by next year.
B. the Vietnamese government does not appreciate non-public universities
C. the Vietnamese government encourages the establishing of non-public universities.
D. Vietnamese students have no alternative to continue their higher study besides universities.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 21. The situation seems to be changing minute by minute.
A. from time to time B. time after time C. again and again D. very rapidly
Question 22. Now I understand why you moved out of that house.
A. I am surprised B. it frustrates me C. I am intrigued D. it makes sense to me
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 23. In my judgement, I think Hem is the best physicist among the scientists of
A B C
the SEA region.
D
Question 24. It is believed that in the near future robots will be used to doing things such
A B C
as cooking.
D
Question 25. Passengers are required to arrive to the gate fifteen minutes before departure
A B C D
time.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 26. Unlike the other Asian states, Singapore has ________ raw materials.
A. Hardly any B. any hardly C. hardly no D. hardly some
Question 27. They are conducting a wide _________ of surveys throughout VN.
A. Collection B. range C. selection D. group
Question 28. What do you mean, he’s watching television? He’s ________ to be washing the car.
A. Supposed B. hoped C. expected D. thought
Question 29. Dick tried to place the _______ on others for his mistakes.
A. Blame B. denial C. complaint D. hurt
Question 30. It _______ out that the major had brided several councils to vote for him.
A. Resulted B. pointed C. broke D. turned
Question 31. It never ________ his mind that dishonesty would be discovered.
A. Crossed B. came C. spunk D. passed
Question 32. Helen is ________ seafood, so she never tries these delicious dishes.
A. Allergic to B. tired of C. keen on D. preferable to
Question 33. _______ the doctors know that it is very difficult to save the patient’s life, they will try their best.
A. But B. although C. despite D. however
Question 34. The young girl _______ down completely on hearing of he father’s death.
A. Broke B. fell C. turned D. went
Question 35. The mother ________ her son. She gives him whatever he wants.
A. Spoils B. harms C. ruins D. damages
Đáp án
| 1B | 2A | 3B | 4D | 5C | 6B | 7A |
| 8D | 9D | 10D | 11C | 12B | 13A | 14B |
| 15B | 16C | 17D | 18D | 19D | 20C | 21D |
| 22D | 23A | 24C | 25B | 26A | 27B | 28D |
| 29B | 30D | 31A | 32A | 33B | 34B | 35A |
Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....
Đề thi giữa Học kì 2
Năm học 2024
Môn: Tiếng Anh lớp 11
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút
(Đề số 5)
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word in each of the following questions.
Question 1. Everyone is hoping and praying that lasting peace will eventually come to the area.
A. durable B. ongoing C. temporary D. enduring
Question 2. Before you begin the exam paper, always read the instructions carefully.
A. orders B. answers C. rules D. direction
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 3. Last year, ABBA made a ____ of seberal million crowns.
A. win B. gain C. salary D. profit
Question 4. If you like asking, there‟s a ski ____ under an hour‟s driving from Madrid.
A. resort B. station C. place D. port
Question 5. He’s very ____ about his private life. He’s goy no secrets.
A. trustworthy B. direct C. open D. sincere
Question 6. Even though they don’t agree with what‟s happening, they’re too ____ to protest.
A. apathetic B. subdued C. quiet D. outgoing
Question 7. Though I didn’t want my son to leave home since he was twenty- one, there was nothing I could do to ____ it.
A. hinder B. resist C. prevent D. cease
Question 8. She noticed _______ away from the house.
A. him to run B. him running C. his running D. him run
Question 9. George has ____; he loves cakes, chocolate, ice- cream- anything which is sweet.
A. a sweet mouth B. sweet lips C. a sweet tooth D. a sweet tongue
Question 10. She’s so _______; you really have to watch you say or she’ll walk out of the room.
A. high and dry B. prim and proper C. rough and ready D. sick and tired
Question 11. You’ve all ________ the point. The film itself is not racist – it simply tries to make us question our own often racist attitude.
A. mistaken B. misunderstood C. missed D. lost
Question 12. ________ one or more units of living substance called protoplasm.
A. Although all living things that consist of
B. All living things consisting of
C. All living things consist of
D. In all living things consisting of
Question 13. The production of tin ore in the United States is relatively insignificant, ____ less than one hundred tons annually.
A. amount to B. in the amount C. amount to it D. to the amount of
Question 14. It all happened so quickly, one minute I was making chips and the next the whole kitchen was ____ fire!
A. at B. on C. by D. in
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase for each of the blanks from 15 to 19
About 50 or so kinds modern plastic are made from oil, gas, or coal-non-renewable natural resources. We (15)______ well over three million tons of the stuff in Japan each year and, sooner or later, most of it is thrown away .A high proportion of our animal consumption is in the (16)________ of packaging and this constitutes about seven percent by weight, of our domestic (17)________. Almost all of it can be recycled, but very little of it is, though the plastic recycling industry is growing fast. The plastics themselves are extremely energy - rich – they have a higher calorific (18)_________ than coal and one methodn of “recovery” strongly (19)__________ by plastic manufacturers if the conversion of waste plastic into a fuel.
Question 15. A. consign B. import C. consume D. remove
Question 16. A. form B. way C. type D. kind
Question 17. A. goods B. refuse C. rubble D. requirements
Question 18. A. effect B. degree C. value D. demand
Question 19. A. argued B. presented C. desired D. favored
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 20 to 25.
FIRST TIME IN THE AIR
When John Mills was going to fly in an aeroplane for the first time, he was frightened. He did not like the idea of being thousands of feet up in the air. “I also didn’t like the fact that I wouldn’t be in control,” says John. “I’m a terrible passenger in the car. When somebody else is driving, I tell them what to so. It drives everybody crazy.”
However John couldn’t avoid flying any longer. It was the only way he could visit his grandchildren in Canada.
“I had made up my mind that I was going to do it, I couldn’t let my son, his wife and their three children travel all the way here to visit me. It would be so expensive for them and I know Tom’s business isn‟t doing so well at the moment – it would also be tiring for the children – it’s a nine-hour flight!” he says.
To get ready for the flight John did lots of reading about aeroplanes. When he booked his seat, he was told that he would be flying on a Boeing 747, which is better known as a jumbo jet. “I needed to know as much as possible before getting in that plane. I suppose it was a way of making myself feel better. The Boeing 747 is the largest passenger aircraft in the world at the moment. The first one flew on February 9th 1969 in the USA. It can carry up to 524 passengers and 3.400 pieces of luggage. The fuel for aeroplanes is kept in the wings and the 747’s wings are so big that they can carry enough fuel for an average car to be able to travel 16,000 kilometres a year for 70 years. Isn‟t that unbelievable? Even though I had discovered all this very interesting information about the jumbo, when I saw it for the first time, just before I was going to travel to Canada, I still couldn‟t believe that something so enormous was going to get up in the air and fly. I was even more impressed when I saw how big it was inside with hundreds of people!”
The biggest surprise of all for John was the flight itself. “The take-off itself was much smoother than I expected although I was still quite scared until we were in the air. In the end, I managed to relax, enjoy the food and watch one of the movies and the view from the window was spectacular. I even managed to sleep for a while!
Of course,” continues John, “the best reward of all was when I arrived in Canada and saw my son and his family, particularly my beautiful grandchildren. Suddenly, I felt so silly about all the years when I couldn‟t even think of getting on a plane. I had let my fear of living stop me from seeing the people I love most in the world. I can visit my son and family as often as I like now!”
Question 20. Why did John Mills fly in an aeroplane?
A. He wanted to go on holiday B. He wanted to try it.
C. He wanted to see his family D. He had to travel on business.
Question 21. Why did John read about aeroplane?
A. He wanted to know how they work. B. It was his hobby.
C. It made him feel safer. D. He had found a book on them.
Question 22. What happened when he saw the jumbo jet for the first time?
A. He felt much safer. B. He liked the shape of it.
C. He couldn’t believe how big it was. D. He thought the wings were very small.
Question 23. How did John feel when the aeroplane was taking off?
A. excited B. happy C. sad D. frightened
Question 24. What surprised John most about the flight?
A. that he liked the food. B. that he was able to sleep
C. that there was a movie being shown D. that the view was good
Question 25. How did John feel about his fears in the end?
A. He thought he had wasted time being afraid.
B. He realized it was okay to be afraid.
C. He hoped his grandchildren weren‟t afraid of flying.
D. He realized that being afraid kept him safe.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 26. The traffic is so heavy. It will take us at least an hour to get there.
A. Unless the traffic is heavy, it will take us at least an hour to get there.
B. As the traffic is so heavy, it will take us at least an hour to get there,
C. The traffic was so heavy that it took us an hour to get there.
D. We will spend more than an hour to get there to avoid heavy traffic.
Question 27. There were no poor performance. Moreover, that of the Russian dancers was certainly the best.
A. The best performance was the one of the Russians while some of the others were poor.
B. The Russian dancers were well- worth watching but the others weren‟t.
C. All the dancers but the Russian performed poorly.
D. They all danced well, but the Russian did the best.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions
Question 28: A. rhetoric B. dynamic C. climatic D. phonetic
Question 29: A. medieval B. malarial C. mediocre D. magnificent
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 30: A. moment B. monument C. slogan D. quotient
Question 31: A. bother B. worthy C. weather D. wealthy
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable answer to complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 32. - Anne: “ Fancy a bite to eat?” - Barbara: “_____”
A. No thanks, I‟ve just had some.
B. No thanks, I‟ve just had something.
C. No thanks, I‟m not neatly very thirsty.
D. No thanks, I‟m trying to give up.
Question 33. - Receptionist: “ Good morning.” - Chris: “ Good morning. I‟ve come to ____ Mrs. Dabria.”
A. see B. visit C. do business with D. hold a talk with
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 34. He is over the moon about his examination result.
A. stressed B. very sad C. very happy D. satisfied
Question 35. The only means of access to the station is through a dark subway.
A. arrival B. admission C. outlet D. output
Đáp án
| 1D | 2D | 3D | 4A | 5C | 6A | 7C |
| 8B | 9C | 10B | 11C | 12C | 13D | 14B |
| 15B | 16A | 17B | 18C | 19D | 20C | 21A |
| 22C | 23D | 24B | 25A | 26B | 27D | 28A |
| 29C | 30B | 31D | 32B | 33B | 34B | 35C |
Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....
Đề thi giữa Học kì 2
Năm học 2024
Môn: Tiếng Anh lớp 11
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút
(Đề số 6)
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 1. Brian wants to borrow Andrew’s cellphone for a while.
Brian: “Do you mind if I use your cellphone for a while?” – Andrew: “__________.”
A. You can say that again. C. Not at all. Feel free.
B. Certainly, it’s true. D. Yes, you can use it.
Question 2. Alice and Sarah are talking about their study at school.
Alice: “I think that your study result is much better.” – Sarah: “___________.”
A. No, thanks. I can do it. C. Yes, please. Just a little.
B. You’ve got t be kidding. I think it’s bad. D. Thank you. I’d love to.
Pick out the word that has the primary stress different from that of the other words.
Question 3. A. determine B. cultural C. informal D. tradition
Question 4. A. person B. signal C. instance D. attract
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions
Question 5. Most vacationers can’t stand travelling in packed cars or stay in dirty hotel rooms.
A B C D
Question 6. Every country has its own traditions, some of them have existed for centuries.
A B C D
Question 7. The shocking news in newspapers are what people are talking about this morning.
A B C D
Choose the most suitable words or phrases to fill in the blanks.
Question 8. We’d better ________ early so as to avoid the heavy traffic.
A. Set off B. go about C. come apart D. take up
Question 9. When you come out of the lift, you will see 2 doors, a red one and a blue one. My door is ________ blue.
A. An B. 0 C. a D. the
Question 10. By the end of next year, Geogre __________ Japanese for 2 months.
A. Has learnt B. would learn C. will have learnt D. will learn
Question 11. Because I was short ________ money to buy a book yesterday, I had to borrow some from my friend.
A. On B. of C. at D. in
Question 12. The suspect is believed _________ by the police some days ago.
A. Having released C. to be released
B. To have been released D. to being released
Question 13. In American culture, people avoid asking someone about age, ________, and salary because this is considered impolite.
A. Marry B. married C. marrying D. marriage
Question 14. My sister is _______ seafood, so she never tries these delicious dishes.
A. Allergic to B. tired of C. keen on D. preferable
Question 15. The policeman wanted to know where he _________.
A. Was night before C. was last night
B. Had been the previous night D. had been the last night
Question 16. Many plants and animals are now under threat of ___________.
A. Expression B. explusion C. extinction D. extension
Question 17. Learning English isn’t so difficult once you ____________.
A. Get down to it B. get on it C. get down with it D. get off it
Question 18. It never __________ his mind that his dishonesty would be discovered.
A. Crossed B. came C. spunk D. passed
Question 19. It was one of ______ I’ve ever seen.
A. The most boring film C. most boring films
B. The film more borings D. the more boring films
Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others.
Question 20. A. balance B. bake C. brave D. station
Question 21. A. booked B. ended C. matched D. pushed
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. Think about the interviewer’s comments because they may help you prepare better when you are called for the next job interview.
A. Remarks B. compliments C. characters D. behaviours
Question 23. Life on Earth is disappearing fast and will continue to do so unless urgent action is taken.
A. Polluting B. destroying C. vanishing D. damaging
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 24. Sorry, I can’t come to your party. I am snowed under with work at the moment.
A. Interested in B. busy with C. relexed about D. free from
Question 25. The consequences of the typhoon were disatrous due to the lack of effective measures.
A. Meaningful B. beneficial C. excited D. damaging
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning.
Question 26. “Would you like a cup of coffee?” he said.
A. He asked me if I would like a cup of coffee.
B. He offered me a cup of coffee.
C. He wondered if I would like a cup of coffee.
D. He wanted me to drink a cup of coffee.
Question 27. Mary lost her ticket. She didn’t go to the concert.
A. If Mary hadn’t lost her ticket, she would go to the concert.
B. Hadn’t Mary lost her ticket, she would have gone to the concert.
C. If Mary had lost her ticket, she would have gone to the concert.
D. Had Mary not lost her ticket, she would have gone to the concert.
Question 28. It is certain that he didn’t finish his homework last night because he spent all night playing computer games.
A. He shouldn’t have finished his homework last night because he spent all night playing computer games.
B. He needn’t have finished his homework last night because he spent all night playing computer games.
C. He mustn’t have finished his homework last night because he spent all night playing computer games.
D. He can’t have finished his homework last night because he spent all night playing computer games.
Question 29. The new retaurant looks good. However, it seems to have few customers.
A. If it had a few more customers, the new restaurant would look better.
B. The new restaurant would have more customers if it looked better.
C. In order to get more business, the new restaurant should improve its appearance.
D. However good the new restaurant looks, it doesn’t appear to attract many customers.
Question 30. She suddenly left the job. We were all surprised at this.
A. As we were all surprised, she suddenly left the job.
B. Although she suddenly left the job, we weren’t all surprised.
C. She suddenly left the job in order to surprise us all.
D. That she suddenly left the job surprised us all.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase for each of the blanks.
During the last 400 years, most scientists have (31)_______ on mathematics for the development of their inventions or discoveries. However, one great British scientist, Michael Faraday, did not make (32)_______ of mathematics. Faraday, the son of a poor blacksmith, was born in London in 1791 and had no education beyond reading and writing.
In 1812, Faraday was hired as a bottle washer by the great chemist Humphrey Davy. Later, Faraday became a greater scientist than Davy, making the last years of Davy’s life embittered (33)________ jealousy. Faraday made the first electric motor in 1821, a device that used electricity to produce movement. Then Faraday became interested in the relationship between electricity and magnetism. In 1831, he (34)_________ that when a magnet is moved near a wire, electricity flows in the wire. With this discovery, he produced a machine for making electricity called dynamo. Faraday then went on to show how electricity affects chemical substances.
Because Faraday believed that money should be given to the poor, when he grew old, he was very poor. However , Queen Victoria (35)________ him for his discoveries by giving him a stipend and a house. He died in 1867.
Question 31. A. made B. consisted C. relied D. insisted
Question 32. A. usage B. use C. utilization D. advantage
Question 33. A. from B. by C. discovered D. created
Question 34. A. insisted B. invented C. discovered D. created
Question 35. A. rewarded B. supplied C. prized D. awarded
Đáp án
| 1C | 2B | 3B | 4D | 5D | 6C | 7C |
| 8A | 9D | 10C | 11B | 12C | 13D | 14A |
| 15B | 16C | 17C | 18A | 19A | 20A | 21B |
| 22A | 23C | 24D | 25B | 26B | 27D | 28D |
| 29D | 30D | 31C | 32B | 33D | 34C | 35A |
Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....
Đề thi giữa Học kì 2
Năm học 2024
Môn: Tiếng Anh lớp 11
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút
(Đề số 7)
Choose the word that has the letter (s) pronounced differently from the others.
Câu 1: A. teacher B. choose C. change D. machine
Câu 2: A. uncertain B. number C. trust D. mutual
Câu 3: A. turned B. noticed C. looked D. helped
Câu 4: A. iron B. restaurant C. parent D. celebrate
Câu 5: A. honest B. happy C. hour D. vehicle
Choose the one word or phrase - A, B, C or D - that best completes the sentence or substitutes for the underlined word or phrase.
Câu 6: She's made friends _______ a little girl who lives next door.
A. of B. by C. with D. to
Câu 7: Your friendship should be based on _______ trust.
A. blind B. fragile C. mutual D. basic
Câu 8: _______ anniversary is the day exactly 50 years after a marriage, often celebrated with a party.
A. Silver B. Copper C. Diamond D. Golden
Câu 9: Smoking _______ bad for our health, so my father _______ three years ago.
A. is/ stopped to smoke B. was/ stopped smoking
C. is/ stopped smoking D. is/ has stopped smoking
Câu 10: They let their children _______ up late at weekends.
A. to stay B. stayed C. staying D. stay
Câu 11: I don't like that man. There is a sneaky look on his face.
A. humorous B. dishonest C. furious D. guilty
Câu 12: When I arrived at the railway station, he had got _______ the train to Hanoi.
A. to B. in C. on D. off
Câu 13: The children seem to be totally _______ of working quietly by themselves.
A. unable B. not able C. impossible D. incapable
Câu 14: By the time Jack came with help, we _______ the work.
A. finished B. had finished C. finish D. have finished
Câu 15: The newlywed _______ spent their honeymoon in Hawaii.
A. pair B. two C. double D. couple
Câu 16: A friend of mine phoned _______ me to a party.
A. to invite B. inviting C. for invite D. for inviting
Câu 17: Up to now, they have not made a _______ whether they will go or not.
A. decide B. decision C. decisive D. decidedly
Câu 18: It is not worth _______ that computer. You had better _______ a new one.
A. for repairing/ bought B. repairing/ buy
C. to repair/ buying D. to repair/ to buy
Câu 19: I believe that everyone has had _______ experiences in life.
A. memorable B. changeable C. acceptable D. observable
Câu 20: The little boy hopes _______ to Disneyland Park on his birthday.
A. to be taken B. taking C. to take D. being taken
Identify the one underlined word or phrase - A, B, C or D - that must be changed for the sentence to be correct.
Câu 21: I'm delighted hearing that you have made much progress in your study recently.
A. in B. hearing C. have made D. much
Câu 22: Although Mai's family is not rich, but they are very kind to people who live nearby.
A. is B. to C. Mai's family D. but
Câu 23: I'd like him going to a university, but I can't make him go.
A. going B. can't make C. a university D. go
Câu 24: When I arrived at the station, John has waited for me for an hour.
A. for B. has waited C. at D. me
Câu 25: Does your brother mind calling at home if his patients need his help?
A. his help B. if C. calling D. Does
Choose the one option - A, B, C or D - that best fits each of the num¬bered blank.
If you are invited to someone's house for dinner in the United States, you should (26)_______ a gift, such as a bunch of flowers or a box of chocolates. If you give your host a wrapped gift, he/ she may open it in front of you. Opening a present in front of the gift-giver is considered polite. It shows that the host is excited (27)_______ receiving the gift and wants to show his/her appreciation to you immediately. Even if the host doesn't like it, he/ she will tell a "(28)_______ lie" and say how much they like the gift to prevent the guest from feeling bad. If your host asks you to arrive at a particular time, you should not arrive (29)_______ on time or earlier than the expected time, because this is considered to be potentially inconvenient and therefore rude, as the host may not (30)_______ ready.
Câu 26: A. take B. bring C. give D. make
Câu 27: A. about B. for C. with D. of
Câu 28: A. white B. deliberate C. great D. obvious
Câu 29: A. slowly B. recently C. exactly D. perfectly
Câu 30: A. been B. be C. being D. to be
Đáp án
| 1D | 2D | 3A | 4A | 5B | 6C | 7C | 8D | 9C | 10D |
| 11B | 12C | 13D | 14B | 15D | 16A | 17B | 18B | 19A | 20A |
| 21B | 22D | 23A | 24B | 25C | 26B | 27A | 28A | 29C | 30B |
Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....
Đề thi giữa Học kì 2
Năm học 2024
Môn: Tiếng Anh lớp 11
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút
(Đề số 5)
Find out the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the three others. Identify your answer by circling the corresponding letter A, B, C or D.
1. A. english B. change C. single D. morning
2. A. machine B. change C. teacher D. choose
3. A. grade B. great C. sneaky D. embrace
Choose the word that has stress pattern different from that of the other words. Identify your answer by circling the corresponding letter A, B, C or D.
4. A. embrace B. celebrate C. affect D. protect
5. A. anniversary B. attitude C. constancy D. loyalty
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
6. Friendship is a two-side .....................; it lives by give-and-take.
A. affair B. event C. way D. aspect
7. What made you more interested .................... learning English?
A. with B. to C. on D. in
8. Jack's mother .................... a birthday cake with seventeen lighted candles on it.
A. brought out B. showed on C. turned up D. took over
9. These anniversaries mark the milestones of a happy and lasting relationship between married couples.
A. signs B. achievements C. landmarks D. progresses
10. Rosa and Luis are happy to be ....................... for their golden anniversary.
A. about B. around C. thorough D. together
11. There are lots of TV Christmas …………… for children this year.
A. specialties B. specially C. specials D. specialized
12. A lots of foods and drinks will be served ....................... the party.
A. in B. at C. for D. with
13. The anniversary of the founding of the charity falls …………. 12th November.
A. in B. on C. at D. to
14. When they get together, all they talk ....................... is football.
A. to B. with C. about D. on
15. They're having a party in ....................... of his 84th birthday.
A. ceremony B. honor C. memory D. celebration
16. When they finished singing, Lisa ....................... the candles on the cake.
A. turned off B. blew out C. cleared up D. brought out
17. It's possible ....................... a train across Canada.
A. to take B. take C. taking D. to be take
18. I felt my face burning with ........................
A. confidence B. enthusiasm C. embarrassment D. pleasure
19. I was delighted..................... my old friends again.
A. to see B. seeing C. seen D. to be seen
20. He tried his best to make his birthday party more ......................
A. enjoying B. enjoyment C. enjoyed D. enjoyable
21. Jane ................any dinner. She had eaten already.
A. wanted B. was wanting C. didn't want D. not want
22. I enjoy.............busy. I don't like it when there is nothing to do.
A. to being B. be C. to be D. being
23. Teenagers often have their............... who they admire very much.
A. images B. admirers C. ideals D. idols
24. When I ............in Paris, I spent three hours a day traveling to and from work.
A. living B. was living C. live D. to live
25. I expected ...............................to the party, but I wasn't.
A. to invite B. be invited C. to be invited D. to invited
26. Thank you for a lovely evening? - ............
A. Cheer! B. Thanks
C. You are welcome! D. Have a good day!
27. A: "............going on a picnic this weekend ?" - B: "That's great !"
A. How about B. Why don't we C. Let's D. Would you like
28. Tom: "How did you get there ?" - John: ".................."
A. The train is so crowded B. I came there by train
C. I came there last night D. Is it far from there ?
29. I remembered ______ up in that house with my brothers and sisters.
A. to growing B. growing C. grow D. to grow
30. – Kevin: "Do you mind if I smoke?" – David: "_______"
A. Well, I'd rather you didn't. B. I'd rather stop smoking.
C. It's a pleasure. D. What a pleasant surprise!
Choose the most suitable options to complete the passage
My village was a place (31)_______ farmers worked on their land, growing rice, potatoes, and maize. The farmers worked hard on the fields from early morning until late in the afternoon. (32)_______ they tried their best, they couldn't make ends meet.
In the last few years, my village (33)_______ dramatically. With the help of a project to help poor farmers, the farmers in the village can (34)_______ money from the bank to (35)_______ more cows , pigs and chicken. The dull atmosphere has been replaced by the exciting one.
31. A. which B. where C. when D. that
32. A. Because B. Although C. As D. In spite of
33. A. has changed B. is changed C. was changed D. changes
34. A. borrow B. take C. hold D. lend
35. A. rise B. raise C. improve D. develop
Đáp án
| 1B | 2A | 3C | 4B | 5A | 6A | 7D |
| 8A | 9C | 10D | 11C | 12B | 13B | 14C |
| 15D | 16B | 17A | 18C | 19A | 20D | 21C |
| 22D | 23D | 24B | 25C | 26C | 27A | 28B |
| 29B | 30A | 31B | 32B | 33A | 34A | 35B |